I have a question regarding the church's interpretation of Scripture. I realise (with great respect) that the Orthodox Church interprets scripture within the paradigm of historical consensus (Tradition), BUT does ALL interpretation of Scripture have to conform to this consensus?
When the (apperently obvious) plain meaning of a particular passage of Scripture seems to contradict the traditional consensus - what does one do?
Let me give an example: We read three times in John 6:37, 44, 65, from the words of Christ Himself, that it is not possible to come to Him in faith unless the Father graciously makes it possible. These verses seem to suggest a predestinating grace is the only means of salvation. I have tried with no success to find some other possible alternative meaning to these words, but to no avail.
Does your tradition have an answer to the above verses, or, do you simply veto such (difficult) passages on the authority of the fathers?
This is my present struggle as I seek a closer walk with the ancient catholic Church.
Of course, there could be a perfectly obvious, equally valid interpretation to the above passages that I have simply been to dim to realise. If you have any suggestions I would be very grateful for your help.